Contradictions in the Bible
1) Any book claiming to be from God shouldn’t have any contradictions, because God and his prophets (i.e. Jesus) are free from imperfection.
So if the Bible is the book of God it should have no contradictions:
a) One Chronicles C:21- “And satan stood up against Israel, and provoked David to number Israel”- in Chronicles, Satan did it)
Two Samuel C24: - “And again the anger of the Lord was kindled against Israel, and he moved David against them to say, Go, Number Israel and Judah” – In Two Samuel, it was the Lord who made David do it, not satan. This is a big difference, either it was Satan or God. Not a minor mistake. And certainly not a mistake God should make.
b) One Kinds C7:26: “And it was an hand breadth thick, and the brim thereof was wrought like the brim of a cup, with flowers of lilies: it contained two thousand baths”
Two Chronicle C4 V5 is the same verse word for word but it says 3000 baths?
Did God get this wrong. Did he inspire incorrectly. It was written in words, not numbers, so it was not a simple mistake of mixing up a 2 and a 3.
c) John C18:V9 – “That the saying might be fulfilled which He spoke “Of those whom You gave Me i have lost none”
John C17: V12 “While i was with them in the world, i kept them in Your name. Those whome You gave Me i have kept; and none of them is lost except the son of perdition.”
This is a contradiction, in the first verse he lost NONE, in the second he lost ONE. God is perfect, he does not make mistakes.
d) II Chronicles C9:V25- And Solomon had 4000 stalls of horses.
I Kings 4:26- Solomon had 40,000 stalls of horses.
Was the old testament inspired or from God to Gabrielle to Moses. If so then God cannot make a mistake as above as it was a direct revelation. Some may argue it is just a difference of an extra ZERO- but the number zero did not exist then, it was created by the Indians after. They use to write 4000 as Four Thousand, or Forty Thousand.
e) I Samuels 28:6 “And when Saul inquired of the Lord, the Lord did not answer him, either by dreams or by Urim or by the prophets”.
I Chornicles 10:14 But he did not inquire of the Lord, therefore He killed him, and turned the kingdom over to David the son of Jesse.
In one verse it says he enquired and the Lord did not answer him, the other verse says he did not enquire so the Lord killed him?
f) Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines according to the old testament – therefore there must a difference between a wife and a concubine as God actually specified 700 wives and 300 concubines, otherwise he could have just said 1000 wives. So now look at
Genesis 25:1 “Abraham again took a wife and her name was Keturah”.
But if you look at 1 Chronicles 1:32 Now the sons born to Keturah, Abrahams concubine, were Zimran, Jokshan, Median, Midlan, Ishbak, and Shuah. – Now the verse claims she was a concubine and not a wife? How can God really mix these phrases up. If someone called your wife your concubine would you not correct them, as they are two distinctly different things. God or the Holy spirit inspired Moses in the first verse to state ‘wife’ and inspired an ‘unknown author’ in Chronicles to write ‘concubine’, the holy spirit is God (the trinity 3 in 1) therefore God has made this mistake?
g) Chronicles states Ibrahim had 8 sons, 1 through Sara, 1 through Hager and 6 through Keturah. Now Paul is inspired by the same ‘Holy Spirit’ and he writes “For it is written Abraham had 2 sons”- who is giving him this miss information?
h) John 1:18 “ No one has seen God at any time”- so God has never been seen by any person.
Exodus 23:20 “you cannot see my face (God told Moses), no man can see me and live” – Once again God states you will die if you see Him. But, in the following verse;
Genesis 32:30 “And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved.” – in this verse it is referring to Jacob seeing Gods face and he did not die? Does God really keep making statements which are proven incorrect, or is it that these later statements are incorrectly written. Who is inspiring these mistakes?
i) 1. God is satisfied with his works
Gen 1:31
God is dissatisfied with his works.
Gen 6:6
j) 2. God dwells in chosen temples
2 Chron 7:12,16 God dwells not in temples
k) 4. God is seen and heard
Ex 33:23/ Ex 33:11/ Gen 3:9,10/ Gen 32:30/ Is 6:1/
Ex 24:9-11
God is invisible and cannot be heard
John 1:18/ John 5:37/ Ex 33:20/ 1 Tim 6:16
l) 5. God is tired and rests
Ex 31:17
God is never tired and never rests
Is 40:28
m) 6. God is everywhere present, sees and knows all things
Prov 15:3/ Ps 139:7-10/ Job 34:22,21
God is not everywhere present, neither sees nor knows all
things
Gen 11:5/ Gen 18:20,21/ Gen 3:8
n) God knows the hearts of men
Acts 1:24/ Ps 139:2,3
God tries men to find out what is in their heart
Deut 13:3/ Deut 8:2/ Gen 22:12
o) God is all powerful
Jer 32:27/ Matt 19:26
God is not all powerful
Judg 1:19
p) God is unchangeable
James 1:17/ Mal 3:6/ Ezek 24:14/ Num 23:19
God is changeable
Gen 6:6/ Jonah 3:10/ 1 Sam 2:30,31/ 2 Kings 20:1,4,5,6/
Ex 33:1,3,17,14
q) God is Just and impartial
Ps 92:15/ Gen 18:25/ Deut 32:4/ Rom 2:11/ Ezek 18:25
God is unjust and partial
Gen 9:25/ Ex 20:5/ Rom 9:11-13/ Matt 13:12
r) God is the author of evil
Lam 3:38/ Jer 18:11/ Is 45:7/ Amos 3:6/ Ezek 20:25
God is not the author of evil
1 Cor 14:33/ Deut 32:4/ James 1:13’
s) How many fighting men were found in Israel?
2 Samuel 24:9 says that it is Eight hundred thousand mens were fighting
and 1 Chronicles 21:5 says that it was One million, one hundred thousand mens were fighting.
Which is correct?
t) How many men were found fighting in Judah?
Five hundred thousand (2 Samuel 24:9)
or Four hundred and seventy thousand (1 Chronicles 21:5)
u) God sent his prophet to threaten David with How many years of famine?
Seven (2 Samuel 24:13)
or Three (1 Chronicles 21:12)
v) How old was Ahaziah when he began to rule over Jerusalem?
Twenty-two (2 Kings 8:26)
or Forty-two (2 Chronicles 22:2)
w) How old was Jehoiachin when he became king of Jerusalem?
Eighteen (2 Kings 24:8)
or Eight (2 Chronicles 36:9)
x) How long did he rule over Jerusalem?
Three months (2 Kings 24:8)
or Three months and ten days (2 Chronicles 36:9)
y) The chief of the mighty men of David lifted up his spear and killed how many men at one time?
Eight hundred (2 Samuel 23:8)
or Three hundred (1 Chronicles 11: 11)
Finally- Coronthians 14:33 “For God is not the author of CONFUSION but of peace...” – we agree, how can God confuse people, confusion is the work of the devil, he confuses people, not God. However will you agree the above verses are confusing?
Above you will find just a few of the thousands of errors in the bible which was inspired by God/Holy spirit. How can such errors occur and such a vast number, and if so with these many errors how do we know the truth from falsehood? For a much larger list please refer to the link (Evidence: https://www.ghanaweb.com/GhanaHomePage/NewsArchive/50-000-Errors-and-Biblical-contradictions-190303)
2) If the old testament is the word of God, how can the following verses be explained
An actual example to prove the old testament is not the word of God but instead the word of mans interpretation of the message given to them is the following;
Book Of Deutronomy, V34- It says, ‘moses died (past tense) and was buried by He (God). No one knows where he was buried’ –Surely if this was the word of God how did Moses convey the message that he has died and no one will know where he is buried? This is a third person who has written this statement therefore this statement cannot be from God nor Moses, yet it is included in the ‘book of God’?
Deuteronomy 34:7
And Moses was a 120 years old when he died: his eye was not dim (perfect vision), nor his natural (body) force abated (lessen, reduce or decreased).-did Moses write this after his death?
“and there arose not a prophet since in Israel like unto Moses, whom the Lord knew face to face”- once again did Moses write this after his death or even before. Clearly this is the work of men. This is not the direct word of God nor the word of Moses.
3) The Geneaology of Jesus
The Genealogy of Jesus according to Luke is completely different to the Genealogy of Jesus according to Matthew! These men were ‘inspired by the Holy Spirit’. Another sign of inconsistency and corruption in the bible by man.
Moreover, there are some other difficulties in the genealogy of Matthew, the first difficulty is that when we compare the genealogy in Matthew with the genealogy in 1 Chronicles 3, we find that 3 names were dropped in Matthew who are Ahaziah, Joash and Azariah, and each of them is supposed to be a king who ruled, these are 3 continuous generations which were omitted.
It may be said that they were omitted because of their sins, so they can’t be considered from the generation of the Messiah. However the genealogy already has other sinners, for example it contains Judah, who fornicated with Tamar and begat Perez (Genesis 38), it contains Solomon, whom the Bible claims that he worshiped the idols and died that way and Jehoram who also worshiped the idols.
The fourth person omitted from the genealogy was Jehoiakim (see 1 Chronicles 3:15), and it seems that the reason for removing him is this verse:
Jeremiah 36:30 “Therefore this is what the LORD says about Jehoiakim king of Judah: He will have no one to sit on the throne of David; his body will be thrown out and exposed to the heat by day and the frost by night.”
According to this verse in Jeremiah, no one from Jehoiakim’s descendants shall sit on David’s throne, which means that the Messiah can’t be from his descendants. Yet Jesus is from Jehoiakim’s geneaology?
Now some may say that Joseph is not the real father of Jesus therefore the above does not apply that Jesus is from Jehoiakim’s geneaology. If this was the case, then this entire genealogy has nothing to do with Jesus. Yet it seems that the writer of Gospel Matthew, didn’t understand it that way; otherwise he wouldn’t have omitted Jehoiakim’s name. Very contradicting. On a side note, God almighty calls Jesus his ‘Son’ (according to Christians), yet He doesn’t not include Himself in Jesus’ geneaology?
4) Age of Jesus
Luke C3: V23- “and Jesus happen to be about 30yrs of age when he began to preach, being (supposed) the son of Joseph.”
If the spirit of God is really inspiring Luke then why ‘about 30yrs’? he should know exactly.
In the new modern translation of King James version the part “began to preach” has been taken out, because Christian scholars realised that was giving the impression God aka Jesus came down for 30 years and did not say a word, which does not fit.- once again adding and taking out text which is a sin according to Revelation 22:19
Also, in the same verse they use the words “being (supposed) the son of Joseph”. These brackets are not supposed to be there, they are placed in brackets to help the reader to understand which is fine. But what they have done now in the Swedish and Danish bible the word ‘supposed’ is still there but the brackets have been removed, now changing the true meaning of the original verse. Now it looks like the actual words of Luke are “supposed”, and if Luke was inspired it means this word ‘supposed’ becomes the word of God. Do you see how people are adding to Gods words? (this may not apply to the English versions, but this man-made edit has been applied to multiple versions of the bible in different languages)
5) Obscene verses from the Book of God, the Bible
Christian magazine called ‘The Plain Truth’- Oct 1977
“Reading Bible stories to children can also open up all sorts of opportunities to discuss the morality of sex and an unexpurgated (uncensored) bible might get an ‘X’ rating from some censors” – a Christian magazine has stated the bible has passages which are X rated and not fit for children. Gods book not fit for children.
As George Bernard Shaw who won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1925states “This is the most dangerous book on earth. Keep it under lock and key, your children shouldn’t have access to it” – we would say dangerous is a over statement, however we see his concerns as you can see from below.
a) Here is an example as to why the above statements have been made.
Judges 16:1 “Then Samson went to Gaza and saw a harlot (a prostitute) there and went in on to her” – ‘went in on to her’ meaning he had sex with a prostitute. This man Samson is a hero in the bible, yet has sex with a prostitute. Was there a punishment mentioned for his actions? No. He was infact glorified in the bible, even after such a sin. Infact he broke one of the 10 commandments. What does this verse serve, what is its purpose to be in the bible? There is no reason. I can understand if the verse was followed by for example “and he was punished or banished, or God was angry with him” but nothing like this is mentioned. It is a completely pointless and unnecessary statement. There is no moral value to this passage or lesson to be learnt, except for obscene description of what he did.
b) This following passage is very obscene. Never could a child read this, and this is the book of God, which all children should have access too.
Ezekiel 23:14 “But she carried her prostitution still further. She saw men portrayed on a wall, figures of Chaldeans portrayed in red, 15 with belts around their waists and flowing turbans on their heads; all of them looked like Babylonian chariot officers, natives of Chaldea. 16 As soon as she saw them, she lusted after them and sent messengers to them in Chaldea.17 Then the Babylonians came to her, to the bed of love, and in their lust they defiled her. After she had been defiled by them, she turned away from them in disgust. 18 When she carried on her prostitution openly and exposed her naked body, I turned away from her in disgust, just as I had turned away from her sister. 19 Yet she became more and more promiscuous as she recalled the days of her youth, when she was a prostitute in Egypt. 20 There she lusted after her lovers, whose genitals were like those of donkeys and whose emission was like that of horses.21 So you longed for the lewdness of your youth, when in Egypt your bosom was caressed and your young breasts fondled.
Now pay special attention to the part ‘whose genital were like those of donkeys and whose emission was like that of horses’. ‘God’ here is describing the men’s penis to be very big and that when they ejaculated, a lot of semen came out like that of horses......What is the need for God or for him to inspire to describe the size of men’s penis’ and their ejaculation? Will this description benefit the reader in anyway?
c) Another example –
Genesis 38:16 “So he turned aside to her by the road, and said, "Here now, let me come in to you"; for he did not know that she was his daughter-in-law. And she said, "What will you give me, that you may come in to me?" He said, therefore, "I will send you a young goat from the flock." She said, moreover, "Will you give a pledge until you send it?" He said, "What pledge shall I give you?" And she said, "Your seal and your cord, and your staff that is in your hand." So he gave them to her and went in to her, and she conceived by him. – What is the purpose of this story about how a man had sex with a woman? What is the moral? Was he punished for this? Did God conclude after the story that this man was wrong?
d) Incest in the Book of God
Incest in the bible is mentioned in no less than 10 places. Here are a few examples; the book of God!
Incest is prohibited in Leveticus 18:6.
Lot’s Incest
Genesis 19:31 “Then the firstborn said to the younger, "Our father is old, and there is not a man on earth to come in to us after the manner of the earth. "Come, let us make our father drink wine, and let us lie with him that we may preserve our family through our father." So they made their father drink wine that night, and the firstborn went in and lay with her father; and he did not know when she lay down or when she arose.
On the following day, the firstborn said to the younger, "Behold, I lay last night with my father; let us make him drink wine tonight also; then you go in and lie with him, that we may preserve our family through our father." So they made their father drink wine that night also, and the younger arose and lay with him; and he did not know when she lay down or when she arose. Thus both the daughters of Lot were with child by their father.” – Once again a very detailed story of incest in the holy book of God. One with no moral. There is no purpose to this story. I would understand if after the story God went on to say he punished these daughters, or that this act was wrong. Was it not sufficient that God already states in Leveticus the rules around incest, why did he have to give so many graphic examples.
Abraham’s Incest
Genesis 20:12 "Besides, she actually is my sister, the daughter of my father, but not the daughter of my mother, and she became my wife; and it came about, when God caused me to wander from my father's house, that I said to her, 'This is the kindness which you will show to me: everywhere we go, say of me, "He is my brother." – Abraham married his step sister, yet in Leveticus 18:6 it specifically states you cannot sleep with your step sister? Abraham is known to be one of the greatest prophets amongst Jews, Christians and Muslims, yet he has fallen into such a hideous sin. This cannot be true.
It is just shocking that this book can be read by children. Multiple stories of sex and incest with no moral ending or repercussion to most of these acts. In many instances’ good human figures and even prophets committing such acts. Are these prophets not supposed to be examples for mankind to follow? Read the next section on the stories of the prophets in the bible and how they even broke the law of God according to the bible.
6) The poison test
Mark 16:17 “And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover.”
a) Now this verse is very interesting, firstly Mark 16:9-20 was thrown out in the RSV 1952 version, then had been reintroduced back into the RSV 1971 version nearly 20 years later due to certain denominations complaining. Once again an example of man tampering with the verses of Jesus and picking and choosing as they please. For centuries these last few verses of Mark existed.
b) For those who believe in this version of the bible, do you think no matter how strong your faith is you will survive drinking poison? Would you dare to put yourself to the test?
c) And for those that believe according to this verse they can speak new languages as a result of just believing? Is this actually believable, we all know some Christians who are very practicing, monks, celibate sisters etc, can we say these people now have powers to speak multiple languages or drink poison and survive?
d) And to add further, if this verse was correct, it is very contradictory to the previous verse we touched on where Jesus says those who cast out devils in his name are evil, yet this verse is saying to the reader to cast out devils in Jesus’ name.
7) Jesus used violence
A lot of people claim Jesus was not violent, that he would turn his other cheek if hit, for this reason the following has been included under this section of 'contradictions'. The following verse says otherwise
a) John 2:15 ”Jesus made a whip from some ropes and chased them all out of the Temple. He drove out the sheep and cattle, scattered the money changers' coins over the floor, and turned over their tables.”
Now as Muslims Jesus having to use a whip must have been for good reason, these people must have been bad and God would have commanded Jesus to use force against these people. As Muslims we are on the side of Jesus, what he does is right. Period. This is just to highlight to many Christians that Jesus did use force (for good reason) for those who believe he never did.
b) In this verse Jesus is going towards Jerusalem and the Jews warn Jesus to silence his supporters. As Jesus is marching to Jerusalem he tells his followers a parable that what he is going to do or what should happen;
Luke 19:27 “But those enemies of mine who did not want me to be king over them--bring them here and kill them in front of me.”
c) Matthew 10:34 But whoever denies Me before men, I will also deny him before My Father in heaven. Do not assume that I have come to bring peace to the earth; I have not come to bring peace, but a sword. For I have come to turn ‘A man against his father, a daughter against her mother, a daughter-in-law against her mother-in-law.…
This verse above is quite profound. Jesus is saying he will raise the sword to kill those who deny him. Furthermore he states he will turn those people against their families. Some people have gone as far as saying the Italians at the time had accidentally changed the word ‘word’ into ‘sword’ by accident. However, the bible was written in Greek, and in Greek ‘word’ is ‘logos’, which is completely different from ‘sword’. Even if you replace ‘sword’ for ‘word’ the complete passage would no longer make sense.
